jimmyjazz wrote on Wed, 01 February 2006 18:06 |
Curiousity killed the cat . . . can any of you tell me what happens to the amplitude and phase response of a finite signal when you reverse it in time? |
jimmyjazz wrote on Wed, 01 February 2006 21:17 |
Thanks, Dan. You touched on part of what I was looking for, but honestly, I was expecting a more theoretical answer. Maybe if I eliminated the "finite" time restraint, it would clarify things. Imagine a reasonably complicated, but infinitely repetitive signal...! |
danlavry wrote on Wed, 01 February 2006 12:21 |
So when does the ear behave "sort of like an FFT"? That is a psychoacoustic question. The ear has it's own time window (frequency bandwidth) of response. |
dcollins wrote on Thu, 02 February 2006 04:23 | ||
This paper has more on the Cochlea and its "filter bank." http://www.aes.org/sections/pnw/ppt/jj_aes04_ts1.pdf DC |
mpd wrote on Sat, 11 February 2006 15:14 |
You asked for theory... The magnitude of the DFT is the same, but you end up with the negative of the phase response. |