There seems to be two issues here:
1. Is the algorithm a correct implementation of a low-pass filter (albeit not good - very simple FIR) followed by decimation? Followed, by does the output sampling phase of the filtered signal affect the fully reconstructed signal?
I think this is a purely technical issue, and the one I am interested in primarily.
2. How does it 'compare'? Highly subjective, and I'm not going to get into that.
Bruno Putzeys wrote on Thu, 19 July 2007 13:08 |
Nobody cares about the sample values. With perfect decimation & upsampling, the reconstructed signal is not affected by fractional delays (apart from being fractionally delayed as well).
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No arguments there. [In fact I wish more people in general would quit looking at sample values - especially in digital editors without proper reconstruction
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Bruno Putzeys wrote on Thu, 19 July 2007 13:08 |
Jon's point is that fractionally delaying the input signal would produce a different reconstructed signal.
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Quote: |
Less than perfect filtering on either end will cause the reconstructed signal to become dependent on the relative timing between the sampling and the signal.
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I have to question this. I've not seen this assertion before. Why does a single input sample delay to the input signal cause a different reconstructed signal, even if the filtering is not perfect? What is seems to me that you're saying is that the phase of the sampling signal relative to the input signal, affects the reconstructed signal. Note that neither of us are saying that the reconstructed signal matches the input signal (given we are assuming out-of-band signals are present). Note that the only filtering here we're talking about is the 'averaging' filter defore decimation - the reconstruction filter/DA conversion doesn't come into it (although all this could apply to it also). My technical reasoning says it shouldn't (but I could be wrong)...
A simple time delay imples no effect on the frequency domain (except simple linear phase change - pure time delay).
The filter is LTI - so only magnitudes of frequency are adjusted (although for this argument there could be no filtering). If this (not-yet decimated) signal were reconstructed, it would be the same for an input delay, but with matching output delay.
Now when you resample the signal at a lower rate, any fs/2 content, wraps back into the fs/2 down to 0, then back to fs/2, etc. as input freq increases. As we all know.
I contend that the phase of the resampling has no effect on the frequency domain, and hence no effect on the time domain, hence no difference in reconstructed waveform (full of wrapped-back >fs/2 content).
Or looking from another direction... 'out-of-band' signals are no different to 'in-band' signals go in regard to reconstruction, except that the get 'reconstructed' in the wrong band (and maybe 'fliped' in frequency). Take note of under-samping as a method of A/D. Remember Nyquist talks about
bandwidth of a signal. In audio, for 48Khz sampling, we use (in the extreme) 0-24kHz. But we could perfectly well sample and reconstruct 48-72kHz (with sharp
bandpass filters), or even shift it into the audio band by using 0-24kHz reconstruction - which is exactly what happens when you let in 48-72kHz signals with audio band (i.e. poor or no >24kHz 'input' filter signal rejection). This unwanted stuff adds linearly with the desired signal. The same happens with the 24-48kHz range, except that the freqency domain is flipped (i.e. 24-48kHz maps to 24-0kHz). Again this is all irrespective of the phase of the sampling signals, so how does its phase change the signal?
Or am I wildly missing something you and Jon are saying?
Bruno Putzeys wrote on Thu, 19 July 2007 13:08 |
If you have no >fsout/2 content, applying a super-ultra-mega-sharp lowpass filter would not do anything, either for the bad or for the good. It simply would not affect the signal at all. When you do have fsout>2 content, the minimalist filter isn't good, as attested by anyone who heard it on material with significant HF.
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Right. So maybe, given the material this method is being used with (very limited HF), maybe there is little difference to 'proper' down-sampling? This guys says he's released lots music that he's mastered using this method (only applicable HF deficient material). Maybe it's simply subjective 'desire' that makes it sound different? (That's rhetorical question - I don't want to get into that myself)
Bruno Putzeys wrote on Thu, 19 July 2007 13:08 |
So under what conditions is eschewing sharp filtering actually supposed to improve matters?
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I think that's the core of this thread perhaps? But againn, not one for me.
Bruno Putzeys wrote on Thu, 19 July 2007 13:08 |
All this pre-ringing stuff is highly conjectural.
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Understood. I'll leave that alone, to avoid muddying things here.
(I also changed the title of my post, so I don't get confused, again, into thinking I posted to the wrong thread)